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Latest Cisco CCNA Data Center 200-155 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-)
QUESTION 1
A new backup connection is being deployed on a remote site router. The stability of the connection has been a concern. In order to provide more information to EIGRP regarding this interface, you wish to incorporate the “reliability” cost metric in the EIGRP calculation with the command metric weights 1 0 1 0 1. What impact will this modification on the remote site router have for other existing EIGRP neighborships from the same EIGRP domain?
A. Existing neighbors will immediately begin using the new metric.
B. Existing neighbors will use the new metric after clearing the EIGRP neighbors.
C. Existing neighbors will resync, maintaining the neighbor relationship.
D. All existing neighbor relationships will go down.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Which statement is correct regarding Media Redundancy Protocol (MRP) in a ring of ProfiNET devices?
A. When a link fault is detected, MRP rings must converge in less than 100 milliseconds
B. MRP defines two device roles, Media Redundancy Master and Media Redundancy Client
C. MRP can support rings of up to 250 devices
D. MRP is only supported on network switches
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
Which describes a best practice rule for controlling traffic between the corporate network and the controls network?
A. Outbound traffic from the control network to the corporate network and outbound traffic from the corporate network to the control network can be restricted based on source and destination address only.
B. Outbound traffic from the corporate network to the control network should be restricted but outbound traffic from the control network to the corporate network should not be restricted.
C. Outbound traffic from the control network to the corporate network should be restricted based on source and destination address and service only.
D. Outbound traffic from the control network to the corporate network should be restricted based on source and destination address, service, and port.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
How will EIGRPv6 react if there is an IPv6 subnet mask mismatch between the Global Unicast addresses on a point-to-point link?
A. EIGRPv6 will form a neighbor relationship.
B. EIGRPv6 will not form a neighbor relationship.
C. EIGRPv6 will form a neighbor relationship, but with the log MSG: “EIGRPv6 neighbor not on a common subnet.”
D. EIGRPv6 will form a neighbor relationship, but routes learned from that neighbor will not be installed in the routing table.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
To ensure ProfiNET Layer 2 Class-of-Service markings from ProfiNET devices are trusted by the switch, which command must be entered on the interface attached to the device? 200-155 dumps
A. switch(config-if)#mls qos trust cos
B. switch(config-if)#qos trust cos
C. switch(config-if)#profinet cos trust
D. switch(config-if)#trust qos cos
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
What percentage of an I/O connection would you set the RPI in order to ensure the application has the most current data?
A. RPI at 50% of IO rate
B. RPI at 25% of IO rate
C. PI to 25% of PAC scan rate
D. Set RPI to 50% of PAC scan rate
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Which five are characteristics that describe Cisco Industrial switches? (Choose five)
A. Din rail mount
B. 19 inch rack mount
C. Fanless
D. Fans
E. Swappable SD flash card
F. Alarm relay
G. -5ºC to 45ºC operating environment
H. ProfiNET conformance class C compliance
Correct Answer: A,B,C,E,F
QUESTION 8
Which two are possible solutions to control which devices can communicate between industrial zones? (Choose two)
A. Use per zone private IP addressing and deploy NAT to control traffic between zones
B. Put access control lists on switches connecting industrial zones to control traffic
C. Attach each zone to a firewall to control intra-zone traffic
D. Deploy QoS traffic shaping to limit the volume of traffic between industrial zones
E. Deploy an IDS system between the zones to control intra-zone traffic
Correct Answer: B,C
QUESTION 9
Which is an issue with running CIP Motion on a REP network and identifies an alternate resiliency protocol that works for CIP Motion?
A. CIP Motion requires a star topology which is not supported by REP. DLR is a suitable resiliency protocol for CIP motion.
B. REP convergence is not fast enough. DLR is a suitable resiliency protocol for CIP motion.
C. CIP Motion requires a star topology which is not supported by REP. RPVST+ is a suitable resiliency protocol for CIP motion.
D. REP convergence is not fast enough. RPVST+ is a suitable resiliency protocol for CIP motion.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
A shutdown in the cookie cutter machine was traced to a broken network cable. What are two reasons that explain why using DLR is an appropriate choice for network resiliency? (Choose two)
A. DLR is designed for single network operation at the machine level
B. Moving to a linear topology will reduce the number of cables and so reduce risk of cable failure
C. DLR is the only resiliency technology that is supported by CIP Safety
D. Layer 2 resiliency protocols like REP and RSTP do not have a fast enough convergence time for motion control
E. Half of the network traffic goes clockwise on the ring and the other half counterclockwise, reducing by 50% the impact of cable failure
Correct Answer: A,D
QUESTION 11
What can be done to increase the security in depth in an industrial zone?
A. Add additional disk storage to the IDS server
B. Add specific SCADA signatures to the IDS server
C. Create a high availability solution for the IDS server
D. Place a ‘data diode’ in front of the IDS server
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
ProfiNET has been disabled on a Cisco Industrial Ethernet switch. Which CLI command will correctly enable ProfiNET on the switch?
A. switch(config)#profinet
B. switch(config-if)#switchport profinet vlan 10
C. switch(config)#vlan 10 profinet
D. switch#enable profinet
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
You have reached the limit of IPv4 IGMP groups available on a Cisco IE 3000 switch that was deployed using the Express Setup. 200-155 dumps Which CLI command will increase the number of available IPv4 IGMP groups and multicast routes from 256 to 1000 on this switch?
A. switch(config)#sdm prefer routing
B. switch(config)#sdm prefer vlan igmp
C. switch(config)#sdm prefer routing igmp
D. switch(config)#sdm prefer vlan
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
Why would a rogue host that is running a DHCP server on a campus LAN network present a security risk?
A. It may allocate IP addresses from an unknown subnet to the users.
B. All multicast traffic can be sniffed by using the DHCP multicast capabilities.
C. The CPU utilization of the first hop router can be overloaded by exploiting DHCP relay open ports.
D. A potential man-in-the-middle attack can be used against the clients.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Which statement is true about loop guard?
A. Loop guard only operates on interfaces that are considered point-to-point by the spanning tree.
B. Loop guard only operates on root ports.
C. Loop guard only operates on designated ports.
D. Loop guard only operates on edge ports.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
Which two are effects of connecting a network segment that is running 802.1D to a network segment that is running 802.1w? (Choose two.)
A. The entire network switches to 802.1D and generates BPDUs to determine root bridge status.
B. A migration delay of three seconds occurs when the port that is connected to the 802.1D bridge comes up.
C. The entire network reconverges and a unique root bridge for the 802.1D segment, and a root bridge for the 802.1w segment, is chosen.
D. The first hop 802.1w switch that is connected to the 802.1D runs entirely in 802.1D compatibility mode and converts the BPDUs to either 802.1D or 802.1w BPDUs to the 802.1D or 802.1w segments of the network.
E. Classic 802.1D timers, such as forward delay and max-age, will only be used as a backup, and will not be necessary if point-to-point links and edge ports are properly identified and set by the administrator.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 17
Which statement is true about TCN propagation?
A. The originator of the TCN immediately floods this information through the network.
B. The TCN propagation is a two step process.
C. A TCN is generated and sent to the root bridge.
D. The root bridge must flood this information throughout the network.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
In 802.1s, how is the VLAN to instance mapping represented in the BPDU?
A. The VLAN to instance mapping is a normal 16-byte field in the MST BPDU.
B. The VLAN to instance mapping is a normal 12-byte field in the MST BPDU.
C. The VLAN to instance mapping is a 16-byte MD5 signature field in the MST BPDU.
D. The VLAN to instance mapping is a 12-byte MD5 signature field in the MST BPDU.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
Which two options does Cisco PfR use to control the entrance link selection with inbound optimization? (Choose two.)
A. Prepend extra AS hops to the BGP prefix.
B. Advertise more specific BGP prefixes (longer mask).
C. Add (prepend) one or more communities to the prefix that is advertised by BGP.
D. Have BGP dampen the prefix.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 20
A branch router is configured with an egress QoS policy that was designed for a total number of 10 concurrent VOIP calls. Due to expansion, 15 VOIP calls are now running over the link, but after the 14th call was established, all calls were affected and the voice quality was dramatically degraded. 200-155 dumps Assuming that there is enough bandwidth on the link for all of this traffic, which part of the QoS configuration should be updated due to the new traffic profile?
A. Increase the shaping rate for the priority queue.
B. Remove the policer applied on the priority queue.
C. Remove the shaper applied on the priority queue.
D. Increase the policing rate for the priority queue.
Correct Answer: D
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